Selina Concise Chemistry Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Chemical Reactions

Selina Concise Chemistry Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Chemical Reactions

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Chemistry Chapter 6 Chemical Reactions. You can download the Selina Concise Chemistry ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Chemistry for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 8 Chemistry ICSE SolutionsPhysicsBiologyMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Chemistry Chapter 6 Chemical Reactions

Exercise – I

Question 1.
(a) Define a chemical reaction.
(b) What happens during a chemical reaction ?
(c) What do you understand by a chemical bond ?
Answer:
(a) Any chemical change in matter which involves transformation into one or more substances with entirely different properties is called a chemical reaction.
(b) A chemical reaction involves breaking of chemical bonds between the atoms or groups of atoms of reacting substances and rearrangement of atoms making new bonds to form new substances.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-1
(c) A chemical bond is the attractive force that holds the atoms of a molecule together, in a compound.

Question 2.
Give one example each of which illustrates the following characteristics of a chemical reaction:
(a) evolution of a gas
(b) change of colour
(c) change in state
Answer:
(a) When Zinc reacts with dil. sulphuric acid. Hydrogen gas is evolved, with an effervescence
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-2

(b) When blue coloured copper sulphate reacts with hydrogen sulphide gas, a black coloured substance copper sulphide is formed.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-3

(c) The reaction between hydrogen sulphide and chlorine (both gases) produces sulphur (solid) and hydrogen chloride (gas).
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-4

Question 3.
How do the following help in bringing about a chemical change?
(a) pressure (b) light
(c) catalyst (d) heat.
Answer:
(a) Some chemical reactions take place when reactants are subjected to high pressure.
e.g: Nitrogen and hydrogen when subjected to high pressure produce ammonia gas.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-5

(b) Some chemical reactions can take place in the presence of light. Ex. Photosynthesis.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-6

(c) A catalyst can either increases or decreases the rate of chemical reaction and some chemical reactions need a catalyst to change the rate of the reaction, in case it is too slow or too fast.

  1. Positive catalyst: When a catalyst increase the rate of reaction finely divided iron is used as a positive catalyst in the manufacturing of ammonia from hydrogen and nitrogen.
    selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-7
  2. Negative Catalyst: When a catalyst decreases the rate of reaction.
    Ex. Phosphoric acid act as a negative catalyst to decrease the rate of the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide.

(d) Some chemical reactions take place only in the presence of heat.
e.g. When lead nitrate is heated, it breaks into lead monoxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-8

Question 4.
(a) Define catalyst.
(b) What are (i) positive catalysts and (ii) negative catalysts? Support your answer with one example for each of them.
(c) Name three biochemical catalysts found in the human body.
Answer:
(a) Catalyst: A catalyst is a substance that either increases or decreases the rate of a chemical reaction without itself undergoing any chemical change during the reaction.

(b) (i) Positive catalyst: When a catalyst increases the rate of chemical reaction, it is called positive catalyst.
e.g. when potassium chlorate heated to 700°C decomposes to evolve oxygen gas, when MnO2 is added the decomposition takes place at 300°C
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-9
(ii) Negative catalyst: When a catalyst decreases the rate of chemical reaction it is called negative catalyst.
Example. Phosphoric acid acts as a negative catalyst to decrease the rate of the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide. Alcohol too acts as a negative catalyst in certain chemical reactions.

(c) Biochemical catalysts found in human body:

  1. Pepsin
  2. Tryspin
  3. lipase.

Question 5.
What do you observe when
(a) dilute sulphuric acid is added to granulated zinc?
(b) a few pieces of iron are dropped in a blue solution of copper sulphate?
(c) silver nitrate is added to a solution of sodium chloride?
(d) ferrous sulphate solution is added to an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide.
(e) solid lead nitrate is heated?
(f) when dilute sulphuric acid is added to barium chloride solution ?
Answer:
(a) When Zinc reacts with dilute sulphuric acid, hydrogen gas is evolved with an effervesence.
Zn + dil. H2SO4 → Zn SO4 + H2.

(b) When a few pieces of iron are dropped into a blue coloured copper sulphate solution, the blue colour of the solution fades and eventually turns into green.

(c) When a solution of silver nitrate is added to a solution of sodium chloride, white insoluble ppt. of silver chloride is formed.
AgNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) → AgCl (ppt) + NaNO3 (aq)

(d) When ferrous sulphate solution is added to sodium hydroxide solution, a dirty green ppt. of ferrous hydroxide is formed.
FeSO4 (aq) + 2NaOH (aq) → Fe(OH)2 ↓ + Na2SO4(aq)

(e) When solid lead nitrate is heated, it decomposes to produce light yellow solid lead monoxide, reddish brown nitrogen dioxide gas and colourless oxygen gas.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-42

(f) When few drops of dilute sulphuric acid is added to barium chloride solution, a white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-43

Question 6.
Complete and balance the following chemical equations:
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-12
Answer:
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-13
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-14

Exercise – II

Question 1.
1. Fill in the blanks.
(a) A reaction in which two or more substances combine to form a single substance is called a combination reaction.
(b) A catalyst is a substance which changes the rate of a chemical reaction without undergoing a chemical change.
(c) The formation of gas bubbles in a liquid during a reaction is called effervesence
(d) The reaction between an acid and a base is called neutralization reaction.
(e) Soluble bases are called alkalis.
(f) The chemical change involving iron and hydrochloric acid illustrates a displacement reaction.
(g) In the type of reaction called double decomposition reaction, ions two compounds exchange their positive and negative radicals ions respectively.
(h) A catalyst either increases or decreases the rate of a chemical change but itself remains unchanged at the end of the reaction.
(i) The chemical reaction between hydrogen and chlorine is a combinaton reaction
(j) When a piece of copper is added to silver nitrate solution, it turns blue in colour.

Question 2.
Classify the following reactions as combination, decomposition, displacement, precipitation and neutralization. Also balance the equations.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-15
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-16

Question 3.
Define:
(a) precipitation (b) neutralization (c) catalyst
Answer:
(a) Precipitation: A chemical reaction in which two compounds in their aqueous state react to form an insoluble salt as one of the product.
Acid + Base → Salt + Water
Example.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-44

(b) Neutralization: A chemical reaction in which a base or an alkali reacts, with an acid to produce a salt and water only.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-18

(c) Catalyst: A catalyst is a substance that either increases or decreases the rate of a chemical reaction without itself undergoing any chemical change.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-19
here iron act as a catalyst and increases the rate of chemical reaction.

Question 4.
Explain the following types of chemical reactions giving two examples for each of them.
(a) combination reaction
(b) decomposition reaction
(c) displacement reaction
(d) double decomposition reaction
Answer:
(a) Combination reaction: A reaction in which two or more substances combine to form a single substance is called combination reaction.
A + B → AB
e.g (i) When iron and sulphur are heated together, they combine to form iron sulphide.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-20
(ii) When carbon bums in oxygen to form a gaseous compound called carbon dioxide.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-21
(b) Decomposition reaction: A reaction in which a compound breaks up due to the application of heat into two or more simple substances is called decomposition reaction.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-22
e.g. (i) Mercuric oxide when heated, decomposes to form two elements mercury and oxygen
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-23
(ii) CaCO3 when heated decomposes to calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-24

(c) Displacement reaction: A reaction in which a more active element displaces a less active element from a compound is called displacement reaction.
AB + C → CB + A
e.g. (i) Zinc, displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.
Zn + CuSO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu
(ii) Iron piece when added to copper sulphate solution, copper is displaced.
Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu.

(d) Double decomposition reaction: A chemical reaction in which two compounds in their aqueous state exchange their ions to form new compounds is called a double decomposition reaction.
AB + CD → CB + AD
e.g. (i) AgNO3 + HCl  AgCl + HNO3(aq)
(ii) NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq)  NaCl (aq) + H2O.

Question 5.
Write the missing reactants and products and balance the equations.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-25
Answer:
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-26

Question 6.
How will you obtain?
(a) Magnesium oxide from magnesium.
(b) Silver chloride from silver nitrate.
(c) Nitrogen dioxide from lead nitrate.
(d) Zinc chloride from zinc.
(e) Ammonia from nitrogen.
Also give balanced equations for the reactions
Answer:
(a) Magnesium when burnt in air (oxygen) Magnesium oxide is formed
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-27

(b) When silver nitrate solution reacts with sodium chloride, silver chloride is formed.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-28

(c) Lead nitrate when heated nitrogen oxide is obtained
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-29

(d) Zinc when reacts with hydrochloric acid zinc chloride and hydrogen (g) is formed.
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

(e) Nitrogen when reacts with hydrogen at 450°C and under 200 atm, ammonia is formed.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-30

Question 7.
What do you observe when
(a) Iron nail is kept in copper sulphate solution for sometime.
(b) Phenolphthalein is added to sodium hydroxide solution.
(c) Blue litmus paper is dipped in dilute hydrochloric acid.
(d) Lead nitrate is heated.
(e) Magnesium ribbon is burnt in oxygen.
(f) Ammonia is brought in contact of hydrogen chloride.gas.
Answer:
(a) A brown layer of copper gets deposited on iron nail. This is due to chemical reaction.
Fe (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → FeSO4 (aq) + Cu (s)
(b) Solution turns pink.
(c) Blue litmus turns red in an acid solution.
(d) The pale yellow solid is lead monoxide, the reddish brown gas is nitrogen dioxide and the colourless gas is oxygen.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-31
(e) Magnesium ribbon bums with a dazzling white light and produces a white powder which is magnesium oxide.
The reaction can be represented as
2Mg + O2 → 2MgO (white powder)
(f) Ammonia and hydrogen chloride, both compounds, combine to form a compound, ammonium chloride.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-32

Question 8.
Give reason:
(a) A person suffering from acidity is advised to take an antacid.
(b) Acidic soil is treated with quick lime.
(c) Wasp sting is treated with vinegar.
Answer:
(a) An antacid neutralizes stomach acidity.
(b) If the soil is acidic it can be treated with base like quick lime, to make it neutral.
(c) Wasp stings are alkaline and they can be neutralized by vinegar which is a weak acid.

Question 9.
What is meant by the metal reactivity series ? State its importance, (any two points).
Answer:
A list in which the metals are arranged in the decreasing order of their chemical reactivity is called the metal reactivity series.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-33
Special features of the activity series:

  1. The ease with which a metal in solution loses electron(s) and forms a positive ion decreases down the series, i.e. from potassium to gold.
  2. Hydrogen is included in the activity series because, like metals do, it too loses an electron and becomes positively charged (H+) in most chemical reactions.
  3. The series facilitates the comparative study of metals in terms of the degree of their reactivity.
  4. The compounds of the metals (oxides, carbonates, nitrates and hydroxides) too can be easily compared.

Question 10.
What are oxides ? Give two examples of each of the following oxides.
(a) Basic oxide (b) Acidic oxide
(c) Amphoteric oxide (d) Neutral oxide
Answer:
An oxide is a compound which essentially contains oxygen in its molecule, chemically combined with a metal or a non-metal.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-chemical-reactions-34

Question 11.
Define exothermic and endothermic reactions. Give two examples of each.
Answer:
Exothermic reactions: The chemical reaction in which heat is given out is called exothermic reactions. It causes rise in temperature. .
e.g. (i) When carbon bums in oxygen to form carbon dioxide, a lot of heat is produced.
C + O2 → CO2 + heat.
When water is added to quicklime a lot of heat is produced which boils the water.
CaO + H2O → Ca (OH)2 + Heat.

Endothermic reaction: A chemical reaction in which heat is absorbed is called endothermic reaction. It causes fall in temperature.
e.g. (i) When nitrogen and oxygen together are heated to a temperature of about 3000°C, nitric oxide gas is formed.
N2 + O2 + heat → 2NO (g)
(ii) Decomposition of calcium carbonate into carbon dioxide and calcium oxide when heated to a 1000°C.
CaCO3 + Heat → CaO (s) + CO2 (g)

Question 12.
State the effect of:
(a) an endothermic reaction
(b) an exothermic reaction on the surroundings.
Answer:
(a) Carbon dioxide present in the atmosphere is trapped by infrared radiations, gives rise to temperature which is exothermic reaction.
(b) The melting of glaciers by global warming.

Question 13.
What do you observe when
(a) an acid is added to a basic solution.
(b) ammonium chloride is dissolved in water.
Answer:
(a) A chemical reaction in which a base or an alkali reacts with an acid to produce a salt and water.
Acid + Base → Salt + Water
(b) Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water is an endothemic reaction in which heat energy is absorbed.

Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Transportation in Plants

Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Transportation in Plants

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Biology Chapter 1 Transportation in Plants. You can download the Selina Concise Biology ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Biology for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 8 Biology ICSE SolutionsChemistryPhysicsMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Biology Chapter 1 Transportation in Plants

REVIEW QUESTIONS

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Put a tick mark (✓) against the correct alternative in the following statements:

(a) Diffusion occurs when molecules move:

  1. from lower concentration to higher concentration.
  2. from higher concentration to lower concentration through a membrane.
  3. from higher concentration to lower concentration.
  4. when energy is used.

Answer: (3) from higher concentration to lower concentration.

(b) Ascent of sap in plants takes place through:

  1. Cortex
  2. Epidermis
  3. Xylem
  4. Phloem

Answer: (3) Xylem

(c) If the xylem vessels of a plant are plugged:

  1. The leaves will turn yellow
  2. No food will be made
  3. The plant will wilt (shrivel)
  4. The plant will continue to grow

Answer: (3) The plant will wilt (shrivel)

(d) Force responsible for the ascent of sap is:

  1. Capillary force
  2. Root pressure
  3. Transpirational pull
  4. All the three

Answer: (4) All the three

(e) Raisins swell when put in:

  1. Rain water
  2. Tap water
  3. Mustard oil
  4. Saturated sugar solution

Answer: (1) Rain water

(f) The root-hairs are suited for absorbing water from the soil because:

  1. They have a large surface area
  2. They have a semi-permeable membrane
  3. They contain a solution of higher concentration than the surrounding water.
  4. All the three.

Answer: (4) All the three.

(g) Transpiration is defined as:

  1. the rise of water up to the stem of a plant.
  2. the elimination of water with dissolved water products.
  3. the loss of water as water vapour from the aerial parts of a plant.
  4. the loss of water as water vapour from the roots as well as the leaves of the plant.

Answer: (3) the loss of water as water vapour from the aerial parts of a plant.

(h) Which one of the following favours the fastest transpiration rate ?

  1. A cool, humid, windy day,
  2. A hot, humid, windy day,
  3. A hot, humid, still day,
  4. A hot, dry, windy day.

Answer: (4) A hot, dry, windy day.

Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
An experiment was set up as shown in the figure below. After some time, the Water level in test tube A fell down but not in test tube B.
Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Transportation in Plants 1
Why was there a fall in the water level of test tube A and not in that of test-tube B ?
Answer:
In test tube A the water level falls because the water was absorbed by the plant through its roots dipped in water. Here no water loss occurs due to evaporation from the water surface due to presence of oil.
In test tube B the water level remains unchanged as it does not contain a rooted plant. Due to the presence of oil on surface no water loss occurs due to evaporation.

Question 2.
How are roots useful to the plants? Give any two points.
Answer:
Roots are useful to the plants in the following way:

  1. It absorbs water and minerals from the soil and transport it upward to various parts of a plant.
  2. Roots fix the plant firmly in the ground.

Question 3.
What do xylem vessels carry?
Answer:
The xylem vessels carry the water and minerals absorbed by the roots to the stem and leaves.

Question 4.
Name the plant tissue which helps in carrying the food to different parts.
Answer:
Phloem.

Question 5.
Define the terms:
(a) semi-permeable membrane
(b) osmosis.
Answer:

(a) Semi-permeable membrane: It is a membrane that allows the movement of solvent molecules (e.g. water molecules) through it but prevents the movement of solute particles (e.g. sugar or salt molecules).
For example: Egg membrane, parchment membrane, cellophane paper etc. are semi-permeable membranes.

(b) Osmosis: The diffusion of water molecules through a semi-permeable membrane from a region where water is more concentrated to a region where it is less concentrated is called osmosis.
In other words, osmosis is the diffusion of water from its pure state or dilute solution into a stronger or concentrated solution through a semi-permeable membrane.

Question 6.
Under what conditions do plant transpire (a) more quickly and (b) most slowly?
Answer:
(a) Transpiration is faster on hot summer days as compared to cold winters.
(b) Transpiration is reduced if the air is humid. Air cannot hold any water molecules when it is already laden with moisture (humidity).

Question 7.
Given here is an enlarged diagram of a part of the root. Draw arrows on the diagram to show the movement of water passing through different parts.
Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Transportation in Plants 2
Answer:
Path of water through the root hair to the xylem vessels.
Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Transportation in Plants 3

Question 8.
Why is the structure of the root hair is quite suitable for absorbing water from the soil ?
Answer:
The root hair are suitable for absorbing water from the soil in the following three ways:

  1. The root hairs present a large surface area. More the surface area, greater is absorption.
  2. The cell wall is of cellulose nature and forms permeable membrane and the plasma membrane around the vacuole forms the semi-permeable membrane.
  3. Root hairs have solution (cell sap) of a higher concentration than the surrounding soil water.

Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Transportation in Plants 4
Fig. Unicellular root hairs through the soil particles

Question PQ.
In an experimental set-up, a dye was placed at the bottom of a beaker filled with water as shown in figure A, below. After some time, the entire water in the beaker got coloured uniformly as shown in figure D.
Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Transportation in Plants 6
Answer:
(a) Name and define the phenomenon shown in the experiment.

Answer: The phenomenon is diffusion. Diffusion is the movement of the molecules or atoms of a substance (whether in a solid, liquid or gaseous state) from the region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration.

(b) In all the four figures, two kinds of molecules are shown symbolically – larger and smaller. Which molecules are of the solute and which are of the solvent?
(a) Larger: ………… (b) Smaller: …………..
Answer: (a) The larger molecules are of the solute (dye)
(b) The smaller molecules are of the solvent (water)

(c) If all the dark shaded molecules in A are tightly enclosed in a cell membrane, what will be the nature of movement of the molecules, if any ?
Answer: As the concentration of solvent molecules is more in the left side of the figure A. The cell membrane will act as semi permeable membrane and will allow only the solvent molecules of water to move towards the solute particles. So the solvent molecules will move towards the solute particles. This will show the phenomenon or process of osmosis.

Question 9.
Briefly explain, how transpiration helps in upward conduction of water in plants? (a) ………… (b) ……………
Answer:
(a) Plants continuously absorb water through their roots. This water is sent up through the stem to all parts of the plant, including the leaves. Only a little amount, of water is retained in the plant or utilised by it in photosynthesis. The rest of it gets evaporated into the atmosphere as water vapour through the stomata present in the epidermis of the leaves and other aerial parts of the plant. This creates a suction pressure which pulls up water from xylem of the roots to the stem and then to the leaves.

(b) Xylem tissues are in the form of capillary tubes (tracheids and fibres) where narrower the diameter, greater will be the force. Whenever the xylem vessels lay empty, such as during the loss of water by transpiration, the water from below rises into them by a capillary force.
During day time, water is lost from the surface of the leaves by the process of transpiration. In this process, more and more water molecules are pulled up due to their tendency of rentainingjoined (cohesion). Such pulling force created by the leaves is very important in the case of tall trees where an upward conduction of water takes place.

Question 10.
How does temperature, light intensity and wind affect transpiration?
Answer:
Temperature: Transpiration is faster on hot summer days as compared to cold winters.
Light intensity: The transpiration rate is increased due to the increase in light intensity. During daytime in the sunlight, the rate of transpiration is faster. This is because the stomata remain open to allow the inward diffusion of carbon dioxide for photosynthesis. During dark, the stomata are closed, and hence transpiration hardly occurs at night.
Wind: Transpiration is more when the wind is blowing faster as water evaporates faster from the leaves.

Question 11.
The set up shown alongside was kept in sunlight for an hour. It was observed that drops of water appeared on the inside of the polyethylene bag.
Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Transportation in Plants 7
(a) Name the process which is being demonstrated.
(b) Why was the pot and its soil left uncovered by the polythene bag ?
(c) Why was the pot left in the sunlight?
(d) Suppose the pot in this experiment was placed inside a dark room instead of placing it in sunlight for some time. What difference will be noticed?
Answer:
(a) The process demonstrates the loss of water that has appeared in the polythene bag is transpiration.
As the potted plant covered with polythene bag is kept in the sunlight there will be loss of water through the stomata present on the leaves. The water drops will appear inside the polythene bag as a result of loss of water from the stomata. This is due to transpiration.

(b) As the potted plant is kept in the sun. The water vapours will also be given by the pot and the wet soil. These vapours (water drops) will also go inside the polythene if it covers the pot and the soil. We left the pot and soil uncovered by the polythene so that we may find the loss of water from the aerial parts of the plant covered with polythene bag. This shows that the water gets deposited in the polythene bag has come from the aerial parts of plant.

(c) As we keep the pot in the sunlight the stomata will open and the loss of water i.e., transpiration takes place from the aerial parts of the potted plant and the stomata. The loss of water will be more (transpiration) in the sun, and water vapours will appear in the polythene bag very soon.

(d) As we keep the pot inside the room, the stomata will not open fully and the rate of loss of water will be very-very less, and no water vapours will appear in the polythene bag. By keeping the pot in the room the loss of water will be very less and as a result the transpiration will be very less.

Question 12.
State whether the following statements are true or false. Rewrite the false statements correctly.
(a) Water absorption mainly occurs through the root-hair.
True
(b) Water enters the root-hair by osmosis.
True
(c) Water absorbed by the roots reaches the leaves and is used in producing food for the entire plant.
True
(d) A semi-permeable membrane allows larger molecules to pass through, but prevents the smaller ones.
False. A semi-permeable membrane allows smaller molecules to pass through, but prevents the smaller ones.
(e) Transpiration is the loss of water from the roots of the plant.
False. Transpiration is the loss of water from the aerial parts of the plant.
(f) Transpiration cools the plant when it is hot outside.
True
(g) During transpiration, the leaves lose more water from their upper surface.
False. During transpiration, the leaves lose more water from their lower surface.

Question 13.
Fill in the blanks with suitable terms given below: (Fast, Leaves, Stomata, Conducting, Ascent, Humid)
(a) Transportation in plants is carried out by a conducting system.
(b) The upward movement of sap that contains water and minerals is called ascent of sap.
(c) Transpiration is more when the wind is blowing fast.
(d) Most water gets evaporated from the plant from its leaves.
(e) Transpiration is reduced if the air is humid.
(f) The leaves have more stomata on their lower surface.

Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Draw a magnified view of the root-hair, and describe, how it helps in the absorption of water from the soil.
Answer:
Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Transportation in Plants 8
Give above is a magnified view of a root-hair. It is a long protuberance of a cell. This cell contains a fluid called cell sap which is more concentrated than the surrounding soil water.
The root hair is covered by a very thin ceil membrane that allows water molecules to pass through, but prevents the larger molecules. So the water from the soil passes into the root hairs by osmosis.

Question PQ.
“Raisins swell in water, and grapes shrink in syrup.” Explain this phenomenon briefly.
Answer:
When we put some raisins in a bowl containing water, after 10-12 hours, we will notice that the raisins have swelled up. The raisins have absorbed water.
Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Transportation in Plants 9
But when we put some soft-skinned grapes in another bowl containing thick syrup of sugar. After 10-12 hours we will notice that grapes have shrunk. The grapes have lost water.
Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Transportation in Plants 10
In both cases the gain or loss of water is through the peel acting as a kind of semi-permeable membrane. This membrane has very minute pores which allow water molecules to pass through, but prevent the larger ones of sugar.

Question 2.
How does transpiration help the roots absorb water and minerals from the soil?
Answer:
Transpiration process in plants creates a suction pressure which pulls up water from xylem of the roots to the stem and then to the leaves.
Xylem tissues are in the form of capillary tubes (tracheids and fibres) where narrower the diameter, greater will be the force. Whenever the xylem vessels lay empty, such as during the loss of water by transpiration, the water from below rises into them by a capillary force.
Due to transpirational pull more and more water molecules are pulled up due to their tendency of remaining joined (cohesion). Such pulling force created by the leaves is very important in the case of tall trees where an upward conduction of water takes place.

Question 3.
Define the three processes by which plants absorb water and minerals from the soil.
Answer:
Following are the tree processes which help the plants to absorb water and minerals from the soil.

  1. Diffusion: Soil water moves into the root hairs through the process of diffusion from higher concentration to lower concentration as we put sugar in the milk and the sugar molecules are evenly distributed in the milk and occupy inter molecular spaces of milk.
  2. Osmosis: The cell sap and the cell walls act as semi- permeable membranes and permeable membranes. The concentration of the cell sap is more as compared to the water + minerals present in the soil. So the water and dissolved minerals enters the roots by the process of osmosis.
  3. Active transport: Root hairs absorb water and minerals from the soil. Water diffuses into the root hairs as the concentration of water is more as compared to root hair.
    But in case of minerals these move from lower concentration to molecules of higher concentration. So the minerals from the soil along with water move into the roots. So this is active transport in the opposite direction which needs energy.

Question 4.
How water absorbed by the roots is important for the plants?
Answer:
The water absorbed by the roots is important for the plant in three main ways:

  1. Transportation: The water in the plant body transports substances in solution from one part to another.
  2. Food production: Water is used in producing food (photosynthesis) by combining it with carbon-dioxide from the air in the presence of sunlight.
  3. Cooling: Water is used to cool the plant by evaporation through leaves when it is hot outside.

Question 5.
Name the factors which affect the rate of transpiration? State their role in each case.
Answer:
The following are the main factors that affect the rate of transpiration:

  1. Sunlight: During daytime, the rate of transpiration is faster. This is because the stomata remain open to allow the inward diffusion ofcarbondioxide for photosynthesis.
    During dark, the stomata are closed, and hence transpiration hardly occurs at night.
  2. Temperature: Transpiration is faster on hot summer days as compared to cold winter.
  3. Wind: Transpiration is more when the wind is blowing faster as water evaporates faster from the leaves.
  4. Humidity: Transpiration is reduced if the air is humid. Air cannot hold any water molecules when it is already laden with moisture (humidity).
  5. Low atmospheric pressure: The rate of transpiration increases when the pressure is low.

Question 6.
Mention the two ways in which transpiration helps the plants.
Answer:
Transpiration helps the plants in the following ways:

  1. Cooling effect: In transpiration, water gets evaporated from the plant. The heat required for this evaporation is obtained from the plant itself (latent heat) and thus the plant is able to cool itself w’hen it is hot outside.
  2. Transpiration helps in maintaining the concentration of the sap inside the plant body: The roots continue to absorb water from the soil. If excess water is not evaporated out, the sap would become dilute, preventing further absorption of water along with the minerals required by the plant.

Question 7.
Describe an experiment to show that the plant loses water through its leaves.
Answer:
Experiment: To demonstrate that the plants lose water through its leaves.

  • Take one small-sized, well-watered potted plant having a few branches. Place a polythene bag over its one branch as shown in A and tie it with a rubber band.
    Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Transportation in Plants 11
  • Remove all the leaves from another branch (B) of the same plant, cover this too with a polythene bag and tie it with a rubber band.
  • Place the plant in sunlight, and observe it after 4-6 hours. You will notice that drops have appeared on the inner surface of the polythene bag over branch A, while no water drops appear on branch B.
  • This set-up indicates that most water gets evaporated from the plant through its leaves.

Question 8.
Name any three minerals whose deficiency causes diseases in plants. Give the symptoms of each deficiency.
Answer:
The nutrient elements i.e. minerals are essential for the plants to grow well and complete their life-cycle properly. The minerals are divided into two main categories:

(i) Macro-Nutrients: They are required in larger concentrations and they are obtained from soil.
The three macro-nutrients (minerals) whose deficiency causes diseases in plants are:

  1. Nitrogen (N) – Yellowing of leaves,wrinkling of cereal grains.
  2. Phosphorus (P) – Purple and red spots on leaves, delay in seed germination.
  3. Potassium (K) – Poor Growth

(ii) Micro Nutrients: They are required in small amounts and they are also obtained from soil.
The three micro-nutrients(minerals) whose deficiency causes diseases in plants are:

  1. Iron (Fe) – Yellowing of Leaves.
  2. Manganese (Mn) – Yellowing of leaves, with grey spots.
  3. Zinc (Zn) Desphaped leaves, yellowing of leaves, stunted plant growth.

Question 9.
List out the differences between xylem and phloem.
Answer:
The Xylem tissue consists of four types of cells:

  1. Tracheids: They are elongated dead cells with tapering ends. Their main function is in upward conduction of water and provide mechanical support.
  2. Vessels: They are like tube-like structures placed one above the other forming long channels. They provide mechanical support and also transport water and mineral salts laterally and vertically upward.
  3. Fibres: They are long, narrow and tapering at both ends. They provide only mechanical support.
  4. Parenchyma: They are living cells and helps in the conduction of water and minerals, and serve for the storage of food.

The Phloem tissue consists of four types of cells:

  1. Seive tubes: They are formed of seive cells and form the main conducting part of the phloem. These are cylindrical cells arranged in vertical rows, joined end to end. Their end walls are perforated by pores and are called seive plates. Seive piates helps in passing food material from cell to cell.
  2. Companion Cells: They are associated with seive tubes. It help sieve tubes in the conduction of food material.
  3. Parenchyma: It is formed of thin-walled unspecialized parenchymatous cells and these cells store food.
  4. Phloem fibres: They are dead sclerenchyma fibres formed of elongated cells. These provide mechanical strength.

Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Reproduction in Humans

Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Reproduction in Humans

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Biology Chapter 3 Reproduction in Humans. You can download the Selina Concise Biology ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Biology for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 8 Biology ICSE SolutionsChemistryPhysicsMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Biology Chapter 3 Reproduction in Humans

REVIEW QUESTION

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Put a tick mark (✓) against the correct alternative in the following statements:

(a) The testes are located within the:

  1. Penis
  2. Scrotum
  3. Ureter
  4. Urinary bladder

(b) Amoeba is most commonly reproduced by:

  1. Budding
  2. Regeneration
  3. Binary fission
  4. Multiple fission

(c) Identify the stage which is formed after the fertilisation of the egg by the sperm?

  1. Ovule
  2. Foetus
  3. Embryo
  4. Zygote

(d) Internally, the uterus opens into:

  1. Urethra
  2. Vagina
  3. Oviduct
  4. Vulva

(e) Which one of the following represents the correct sequence in the life history of a butterfly ?

  1. Egg → Larva → Adult → Pupa
  2. Egg → Pupa → Adult → Larva
  3. Egg → Larva → Pupa → Adult
  4. Egg → Pupa → Larva → Adult

Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Distinguish between the following pair of terms:
(a) Egg and sperm.
(b) Sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction.
(c) Budding and Regeneration.
Answer:
(a) Egg and sperm
Egg Sperm

  1. Egg is produced in the ovaries.
  2. Egg is spherical in shape with a nucleus.

Sperm

  1. Sperm is produced in the testes.
  2. Sperm has head with nucleus, middle piece and tail.

(b) Sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction.

Sexual reproduction

  1. In sexual reproduction the two sexes i.e., male and female produce special type of reproductive cells sperms in the male and eggs in the female.
  2. To produce a new individual the sperm has to reach the ovum and fuse with it. e.g. Humans, bird, reptile, etc.

Asexual reproduction:

  1. It involves the production of an offspring from a single parent without the fusion of reproductive cells (gametes).
  2. It is a rapid mode of multiplication, e.g. Lower plants and animals {Amoeba).

(c) Budding and Regeneration

Budding: Budding is a process in which buds grow on the outside of the parent body. The buds detach themselves when they are large enough.
Example: Hydra
Regeneration: Regeneration is the process that uses cell division to regrow lost body parts.
Example: Starfish, sponges

Question 2.
Define the following terms:
(a) Fetilization
(b) Implantation
(c) Puberty
Answer:
(a) Fetilization: When sperms and eggs from the opposite partners (males and females) fuse to form Zygote. It is called fertilization.
(b) Implantation: The fertilised egg (zygote) soon starts developing and by the time it reaches the uterus, a small ball of numerous cells is already formed. This is a kind of embryo which forms a pit in the wall of the uterus and gets fixed in it. This natural way of fixing of the embryo in the wall of the uterus is called implantation. This produces the state of pregnancy.
(c) Puberty: Puberty is the period during which the reproductive systems of boys and girls mature. In girls, it starts at the age of about ten and the first sign of puberty is the development of breasts. In boys, it starts at about 11 years of age of the^enlargement of the testes is its first sign. Sudden spurt in growth, shoulder girdle grows more than hip girdle.

Question 3.
State the reason why testes lie outside the abdomen in a scrotum?
Answer:
Both the testes remain in the scrotum because normal body temperature are to high, scrotum has smooth muscle tissues that keeps the testes at a cooler temperature than the body temperature 2°C to 3°C lower than the body temperature which is the most suitable temperature for sperm production.

Question 4.
Why is it important that a very large number of sperms should be present in the semen ?
Answer:
Single ejaculation of semen has 20,000,000 to 40,000,000 sperms. But only 1 or 2 sperms go into oviduct and fertilise the egg to form the Zygote. It forms embryo that forms an individual. It is the sperm in the semen that are of importance, and therefore semen quality involves both sperm quantity and quality.

Question 5.
List the structures, in their correct sequence, through which the sperms must pass from the time they are produced in the testes to the time they leave the urethra.
Answer:
Sperms are produced in testes. They pass as follows:
The testes consist of a mass of sperm producing tube. The tubes join to form ducts leading to the epididymis which in.turn leads into a muscular sperm duct. The two sperm ducts, one from each testes, open at the top of the urethra.

Question 6.
State the functions of the following:
(a) Ovary
(b) Testes
(c) Fallopian tubes
(d) Seminal vesicle
(e) Uterus
Answer:
(a) Ovary: Ovaries produce ova (eggs) and secrete female sex hormones, oestrogen and progestrone.
(b) Testes: A pair of testes are present in human male. The testes produce sperms.
(c) Fallopian tubes: There are two fallopian tubes in the human female reproductive system. Fertilization occurs in the fallopian tube. It also conveys fertilized egg to the uterus.
(d) Seminal vesicle: The function of seminal vesicle is to store sperms and to secrete seminal fluid.
(e) Uterus: The inner lining recieves, protects and nourishes embryo. Contractions of muscular wall expel baby during birth.

Question 7.
Given here is a section of the female reproductive system of human beings.
Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions - Reproduction in Humans 1
(a) Name the parts labelled 1 to 4
(b) Name the part where fertilisation occurs in human beings.
Answer:
(a)

  1. Ovary
  2. Fallopian tube (Oviduct)
  3. Uterus (Inner lining or Muscular wall)
  4. Vagina

(b) Fertilisation occurs in the upper part of the oviduct. Sperm fuses withthe egg and zygote is formed this is called fertilisation.

Question 8.
Given alongside is a diagram of male reproductive system in humans. Label the parts indicated by numbers 1 to 5, and state their functions.
Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions - Reproduction in Humans 2
Answer:

  1. Seminal vesicle: The seminal vesicles produce a secretion which serves as a medium for the transportation of the sperms.
  2. Prostate gland: Prostate gland which pours an alkaline secretion into the semen as it passes through the urethra.
  3. Testes: Sperms are produced in the testes.
  4. Urethra: Urethra passes through the penis and carries either urine or semen.
  5. Sperm duct: The sperm pass through the sperm ducts.

Long Answer Questions:

Question PQ.
Define the term metamorphosis. Briefly describe the various stages occurring in the life-cycle of a butterfly.
Answer:
Metamorphosis: A change in the form and often habits of an animal during normal development after embryonic stage complete transformation from an immature form to an adult form in two or more distinct stages.

Life cycle of butterfly: The butterfly lays its eggs on the leaves of the plants. The new born that comes out of the egg is called larva. It passes through various stages of development. The larva of butterfly is also called Caterpillar. It is very active. It is very voracious. It feeds and moves actively and gains size.
Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions - Reproduction in Humans 3

It stops moving and eating and it is called pupa. It is a resting stage. The pupa spins thread around itself and thus is enclosed in a covering. It is called cocoon. This cocoon covers the pupa and is protective in function. During this stage it forms the features of an adult. After attaining adulthood the pupa comes out of the cocoon after breaking it as an adult butterfly. The wings of emerged butterfly are wrinkled and soft. After an hour these are fully stretched and it starts flying.

Question PQ.
What is fertilization? Describe the process in human beings.
Answer:
Fertilization: The fusion of male (sperm) and female (ova) gamete is called fertlization.

As the male performs sexual act with the female and as a result of it the semen is deposited in the vagina of the female. Thus the semen has millions of sperms. Only a few of these sperms are able to reach the upper part of the oviduct. If there is an egg in the oviduct it is fertilized by the sperm. As sperm enters the egg and this leads to the formation of zygote, this act is called fertilisation.

During fusion only the head part of the sperm, which has nucleus, enters the egg. The tail is left behind. The nucleus of the sperm and egg fuse and form the zygote. Soon this zygote becomes many called embryo and reaches the uterus and implants on the wall of the uterus and forms the foetus. Baby develops with in the gestation period of 280 days. After this the baby is delivered.

Question 1.
How does a single called fertilized egg grows into an adult in human beings?
Answer:
Fertilised egg i.e., zygote divides and redivides and forms a ball of cells. This is a kind of embryo and it reaches the uterus and gets attached to the wall of the uterus. This fixing of embryo to the uterus is called implantation. Now the embryo undergoes a process “specialisation of cells’’. It leads to the formation of different parts of the body. This process is called differentiation. It leads to the formation of various tissues and other organs and thus organ systems are formed. Organ system lead to the formation of an individual. Thus the zygote forms an embryo, it forms a baby and it forms an adult.

Question PQ.
Tabulate the important physical changes in the boys and girls that take place during puberty.
Answer:
Reproductive system of boys and girls mature during puberty. Puberty starts at 10 in girls and at 11 in boys. Testes enlarge in boys and breasts develop in girls. The following table shows the physical changed in boys and girls that take place during puberty.

Boys

  1. Testes become large
  2. Scrotal sac grows and penis becomes long.
  3. Length increases and shoulder girdle grows becomes more.
  4. Hair grow on the chest arm pits and on the sex organs.
  5. Facial hair and moustaches grow.
  6. Voice becomes hoarse and deep.

Girls

  1. Breasts become large.
  2. Ovaries become large and these release eggs. Size of uterus and vagina grows. Menstruation cycle starts.
  3. Sudden grow th takes place in length. Hip girdle becomes trough shaped, it larger than the shoulder girdle.
  4. Chest and abdomen do not have hair. But hair arise on the sex organs and the arm pits.
  5. No moustaches and facial hair.
  6. High pitch voice.

Question 2.
Describe the human female reproductive system with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
On each side of the uterus two white oval bodies lie. These are called ovaries. Eggs are produced in the ovaries. Nearer to the ovaries there lies expanded funnel shaped oviducts or fallopian tubes. The eggs go into the oviducts when released by the ovaries. The two oviducts open into the uterus. The walls of the uterus are muscular. The growing embryo lodges to the wall of the uterus. It is supplied by the food and blood through the placenta w hich is a connection betw een the growing embryo and the mother. The uterus joins the vagina. It is the vagina in which semen is lodged during sexual act. From here sperms go up into the oviduct and fertilise the egg. The urethra which brings urine from the urinary bladder opens into the.vulva just in front of the vaginal opening.
Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions - Reproduction in Humans 4

Question PQ.
‘Adolescence is a crucial stage’. Justify this statement.
Answer:
During adolescence physical and emotional changes takes place in the body of boys and girls. This is period between the age of 10 to 19 and this is very critical period. Boys bear facial hair, muscular body, hair in the arm pits and on the sex organs, and have hoarse voice. The girls also have beautiful contours, raised breasts, wide lips and high pitch voice. The body increases in length in both cases. Boys and girls becomes conscious about the growth of the body. They become hesitant and shy to each other. They become body conscious and spend lot of time on dressing up and grooming. Hormonal level increases in their body and become restless.

Hormones affect their brains and control their emotions and moods. They cherish the company of their own sexes and show the attraction for the opposite sex. Thus it is very strange and crucial stage in their life. So adolescence is a very crucial stage in the life of the boys and the girls.

Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Food Production

Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Food Production

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Biology Chapter 9 Food Production. You can download the Selina Concise Biology ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Biology for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 8 Biology ICSE SolutionsChemistryPhysicsMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Biology Chapter 9 Food Production

REVIEW QUESTIONS

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Put a tick mark (✓) against the correct alternative in the following statements:

(i) Which one of the following is an indigenous breed of dairy cows ?

  1. Jersey
  2. Frieswal
  3. Sahiwal
  4. Dangi

(ii) Which one of the following is the common breed of buffalo found in Gujarat ?

  1. Surti
  2. Murrah
  3. Gir
  4. Mehsana

(iii) Identify the indigenous breed of poultry of India:

  1. White leghorn
  2. HH-260
  3. Aseel
  4. B-77

(iv) Which one of the following is a rabi crop

  1. Mustard
  2. Pea
  3. Rice
  4. Wheat

(v) Identify the Kharif crop:

  1. Barley
  2. Mustard
  3. Rice
  4. Wheat

(vi) One of the following is a bacterial disease of sheep and goat. Identify it.

  1. Sore mouth
  2. Rinderpest
  3. Goat pox
  4. Brucellosis

(vii) Which one of the following is a bacterial disease of cattle in which the animal gets swelling on body parts, especially on the neck ?

  1. Cow pox
  2. Anthrax
  3. Salmonellosis
  4. Rinderpest

(viii) The plants that live for more than two years are called:

  1. Annuals
  2. Perennials
  3. Biennials
  4. Triennials

(ix) Which one of the following is a viral disease of poultry?

  1. Ranikhet disease
  2. Cholera
  3. Coryze
  4. Aspergillosis

Short Answer Questions:

1. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Cattle feed made from cereals and wheat is called concentrates.
  2. Rearing of birds for egg and meat is called poultry.
  3. Animal food is rich in proteins.

2. Name the following:

  1. The popular indigienous breed of poultry of India …..
  2. Rearing of honey bee …..
  3. Architect of white revolution in India …..
  4. A kashmiri goat which gives expensive wool ….
  5. Scientist responsible for green revolution in India ……

Answer:

  1. The popular indigienous breed of poultry of India Aseel.
  2. Rearing of honey bee is called apiculture.
  3. Architect of white revolution in India Mr. Verghese Kurien.
  4. A kashmiri goat which gives expensive wool kashmiri pashmina.
  5. Scientist responsible for green revolution in India M.S. Swaminathan.

3. Match the columns

Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions - Food Production 1

Answer:

Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions - Food Production 2

4. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Name any four animals which provide us food.
Answer:
Buffalo, goat, pig, hen, fish give us food.

Question 2.
Name any two dual purpose breeds of cattle.
Answer:
Dangi and Tharparkar are dual purpose breeds of cattle.

Question 3.
Give two examples of milch animals.
Answer:
Cows, buffaloes, goat are milk yielding animals.

Question 4.
Name any two high-yielding indigenous breeds of cow.
Answer:
Gir, Sahiwal, Red sindhi are high yielding breeds of cow.

Question 5.
Name four varieties of edible fishes of India.
Answer:
Eel, Hilsa, Salmon, Sardine, Pomphret are edible fishes.

Question 6.
Name two breeds of buffaloes.
Answer:
Murrah, surti, mehsana are breeds of buffaloes.

Question 7.
Name any two diseases of cattle caused by viruses.
Answer:
Cow pox, foot and mouth disease.

Question 8.
Name any two bacterial iiseases of cattle.
Answer:
Anthrax and rinderpest are bacterial diseases of cattle.

Question 9.
What are the symptoms of foot and mouth disease ?
Answer:
Blisters on the foot and mouth, high body temperature, reduced appetite are symptoms of foot and mouth disease.

Question 10.
Name two bacterial diseases of poultry.
Answer:
Fowl cholera, salmonellosis, coryze are bacterial diseases.

5. Briefly explain the following terms:
Answer:

  1. Animal husbandry: The branch of Biology which deals with feeding, shelter, caring and breeding of domesticated animals is called animal husbandry.
  2. Sericulture: Artificial rearing of silk worm and getting of silk from the silk worms is called sericulture.
  3. Aquaculture: The production and farming of aquatic animals as fishes, prawns, shrimps, molluscs, lobsters etc. is called aquaculture.
  4. Hatcheries: We raise small nurseries where water is stored in small pits where we put fish seeds (fish eggs). From these fish eggs very small fish come out after hatching. Then these small fish are transferred to big ponds. These small nurseries where eggs hatch to give small fish are called hatcheries.
  5. Pisciculture: It deals with production and management of fishes. It is a scientific, systematic way of raising of fishes, their multiplication, their production and management. So it is used as food in a sensible way.

6. What is organic farming?
Answer:

Organic farming is the practice of raising crops without using inorganic fertilisers and pesticides. Farmers use organic manure that has been prepared scientifically. In order to maintain soil fertility, and for weed and pest control, they use a combination of crop rotation, hand weeding, mixed cropping and biological control.

Long Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Differentiate between an egger and a broiler.
Answer:
Following are the differences between the egger and the broiler:
Egger

  1. Egg laying chickens are called eggers or egg layers.
  2. The chicks are given calcium (bones, seeds) and are reared to produce eggs.
  3. Eggers should give large number of eggs as white leghorns give many eggs. Rhode island red breeds like HH-260, IBL-80, B-77.

Broiler

  1. Chickens which give us meat are called broilers.
  2. Those chicks are reared on a diet of fats so that they gain flesh on their body and these are used as broilers.
  3. Broilers should give flesh. Indigenous variety Aseel give high yield of meat and less number of eggs.

Question 2.
Name any two exotic breeds of fowl in India, and mention their usefulness
Answer:
Exotic breeds of fowl in India are as:

  1. White leghorn: Its size is small and needs less feed for maintenance. So to raise it is economical. It lays oval white eggs.
  2. Rhode island red: It serves both the purposes as it is a good egg layer and also provide enough of meat. It was raised on a farm in Rhode island of U.S.A. So it is named as Rhode island red.

Selina Concise Biology Class 8 ICSE Solutions - Food Production 3

Question 3.
What are “milch animals”? Give three examples of exotic breeds of cow.
Answer:
Milk-producing animals are known as “milch animals” e.g. cows, buffaloes, goats and camels. The milk from goats is nutritious and is sometimes preferred to cow milk. But the production of goat milk is much less than that of cows and buffaloes. Cow milk is quite nourishing and easy to digest, but as compared to buffaloes, cows produce less quantity of milk. Buffaloes are the major source of milk in our country.
Exotic (Foreign) breeds. For example. Jersey, Holstein- Friesian, and Brown Swiss.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of the term “aquaculture”? Name any three animals which can be cultured by this method.
Answer:
The term “aquaculture” is used for production or farming of useful aquatic animals in various types of water bodies. The animals which can be cultured by this method are: fish, prawns, lobsters, molluscous, etc.

Question 5.
Differentiate between food crops and cash crops and give two examples of each:
Answer:
Differences:
Food crops

  1. These are crops which are grown for food such as cereals: wheat, rice, maize, pulses, oil seeds.
  2. These grow in the plains generally.
  3. These are annuals and complete their cycle in one season as in case of wheat, rice maize, gram, beans, peas.

Cash crops

  1. These are crops which are cultivated for commercial purposes such as tea, coffee, rubber, coconut, spices.
  2. These grow in the hilly areas on the slopes as water of rain should not stand in the roots as in case of tea.
  3. These plants are perennials. These plants live for more than two years. Tea, coffee require pruning before winter.

Question 6.
What are Kharif crops ? Give the name of the most important cereal plant of such crops. Briefly describe any three methods for cultivation of Kharif crops.
Answer:
Kharif crops generally grow in rainy season. Rice is the most important cereal Kharif crop growing in India. It occupies the largest area in India. It needs rainfall from 150 to 200 cms. It requires flooded fields during its growth. It requires alluvial loamy soil.

Cultivation methods of Kharif crops:

  1. Broadcasting: After preparing the fields for growing the rice crop the seeds are thrown in the fields. This method is adopted in the areas where there is less of rain. The fields are not flooded with water. This method is being adopted in China and Japan.
  2. Dibbling: In this method seeds are dropped at regular interval in the furrows made by the plough.
  3. Transplantation: Here the seeds are soaked for 24 hours. The seeds get sprouted. Then these seeds are transferred to nurseries. Here the seeds grow and attain a height of 6” to 9” and then these seedlings are transferred to specially prepared flooded fields which have been properly ploughed. Then those seedlings start growing in the fields. Then the fields are watered and manured from time to time. Then the crop matures and ultimately for ripening they require a temperature ranging from 16°C to 20°C. When the crop become fully ripe and plants become golden yellowish, then the crop is harvested manually or with the help of combines.

Question 7.
Name the two main crop seasons of India. Give three examples of the crops grown during each season.
Answer:
The two main crops seasons in India are:

  1. Kharif season: The rainy season is from July to October and is known as the Kharif Season. The chief kharif crops are the milles, known as Bajra and Jowar, Paddy, Maize, Cotton.
  2. Rabi season: The winter season is from November to April and is known as rabi season. Wheat, Gram, Peas, Linseed and Mustard are important rabi crops.

Question 8.
List the uses of bacteria in the food industry.
Answer:
The bacterial action is involved in the following industrial processes.

  1. In the manufacture of vinegar, butter and cheese.
  2. The process of tanning hides in leather making and preparing sponges.
  3. The separation of flax and hemp fibres which are used for making linen cloth and ropes.
  4. Fermentation of green plants for the production of ensilage for animal food.
  5. Bacteria are used for forming lactic acid, vinegar, citric acid, and vitamins.
  6. For formation of antibiotics, serums and vaccines, vitamin B complex.

Question 9.
Name any one variety of edible mushrooms.
Answer:
White button mushroom (Agaricus bisporous) and paddy straw mushroom (Volvariella) the two varieties of edible mushrooms.
Five major steps in cultivation of the common edible mushroom are as below:

  1. Composting: The compost is prepared by mixing the following in certain proportions.
    • Wheat or paddy straw,
    • Chicken manure
    • Some organic and inorganic fertilizer
      This compost is kept at about 50°C for a week.
  2. Spawning: “mushroom seed” consisting of mycelium of the selected type of mushroom is introduced into the compost, and allowed to spread for a couple of days.
  3. Casting: A thin layer of soil is spread over the compost to give support to the mushroom and provide humidity. It also prevents quick drying of the compost and helps to regulate temperature.
  4. Cropping and Harvesting: The growth occurs in three stages:
    (a) Mycelium (a network of fibrous mass) grows within 2 to 6 weeks.
    (b) Tiny pin heads.
    (c) Button stage which grows bigger attaining marketable size.
    The full grown mushrooms are taken out.
  5. Preservation: Mushrooms are highly perishable. Their shelf life is increased by a variety of processes
    (a) Vacuum cooling
    (b) Giving gamma radiation and storing at 15°C
    (c) Freeze drying in a solution of citric acid, ascorbic acid and brine, etc.

Question 10.
Mention the benefits of “Green revolution” in our country.
Answer:
Green revolution: Knowledge of science has brought about manifold increase in the production of grains, pulses and other crops and led to green revolution. Factors leading to it are:

  1. development of high – yielding varities.
  2. development of early – maturing varities.
  3. disease – resistant varities.
  4. using of fertilizers and pesticides.
  5. development of drought – resistant and dwarf varities.

Dr. M.S. Swaminathan is known as the father of green revolution in India which has led to manifold increase in the production of wheat and rice using hybrid varities (wheat – Kalyan Sona and Sonalika, Rice – IR – 8 Padma, Jaya and Pusa 215, Maize – Ganga 101 and Rankit).

Question 11.
Mention the benefits of “White revolution” in our country.
Answer:
The benefits of “White Revolution” in our country:

  1. The purpose of this programme was to link the rural producer (dairy farmer) with the urban consumer.
  2. Rural farmer co-operatives were organized at the village level and connected to the urban consumer.
  3. It ensured that the dairy farmer got a major share of the price of milk which consumers pay.

The “Operation flood” ensured thre objectives:

  1. increased milk production
  2. strengthened the dairy farmer’s income.
  3. easy availability of milk at a fair price to all.

Question 12.
Write briefly the processes of

  1. wine (alcohol) making and
  2. bread making.

Answer:

The steps for making

  1. Wine (alcohol): Wine is usually made from grapes. The grapes are crushed and the juice is extracted. The juice contains sugar and wild yeast.The yeast ferments the sugar and gradually turns it into alcohol.
  2. Bread: Mix some flour and water with a small amount of sugar and yeast. This makes dough. Then leave the dough for an hour or so in a warm place. During this period the living yeast cells multiply and fermenting sugar to form alcohol give off carbon dioxide gas. The gas so produced makes the dough rise, more or less doubling its size. Then when you bake the dough in a hot oven: the heat kills the yeast and evaporates the alcohol.

Question 13.
Give any five features of good shelter for milch animals.
Answer:

  1. Animal shelter should be very clean, well ventilated and well-lit.
  2. Cattle should have proper sheds, so that animals are safe from rain, cold and heat.
  3. The floor should have a proper sloping so that urine and excreta can be disposed of easily.
  4. Animals should have proper feeding and drinking tubs.
  5. Animal shelter should be spacious and there should not be over crowding.
  6. It should have arrangements for clean fresh drinking water.
  7. The shelter should give protection from predators.
  8. Shelter should be located away from the residential areas and waste disposal sites.

Question 14.
What type of food you would suggest for cattle in order to get good quality of milk ?
Answer:s
Cattle should be given good quality type of food which is proper for their growth, development, health and for their maintenance. Animal food is feed.
This cattle feed has two types of substances.

  1. Roughage: The animals get roughage from hay (straw of cereals), berseem, cowpea, lucerne, silage, maize, bajra and other green plants.
    These plants generally provide fibrous substances and other minerals.
  2. Concentrates: These are rich in carbohydrates, proteins, fats, minerals, and vitamins, concentrates are given by.
    • Grains and seeds of bajra, maize, rye, gram, cotton, jowar, barley. These provide carbohydrates.
      Legume seeds and cotton seeds provide proteins and fats.
    • Oil cakes: These oil cakes are very good feed for the animals. These are formed from the remains of oil seeds after we get the oil from the seeds. We get oil cakes from the seeds of cotton, mustard.
    • Molasses are rich in proteins.
    • Wheat bran, rice bran, and gram bran also give concentrates.

Selina Concise Chemistry Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Atomic Structure

Selina Concise Chemistry Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Atomic Structure

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Chemistry Chapter 4 Atomic Structure. You can download the Selina Concise Chemistry ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Chemistry for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 8 Chemistry ICSE SolutionsPhysicsBiologyMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Exercise

1. Fill in the blanks.

(a) Dalton said that atoms could not be divided
(b) An ion which has a positive charge is called a cation.
(c) The outermost shell of an atom is known as valence shell.
(d) The nucleus of an atom is very hard and dense.
(e) Neutrons are neutral particles having mass equal to that of protons.
(f) Isotopes are the atoms of an element having the same atomic number but a different mass number.

2. Write ‘true’ or ‘false’ for the following statements:

(a) An atom on the whole has a positive charge.
false
(b) The maximum number of electrons in the first shell can be 8.
false
(c) The central pad of the atom is called nucleus.
True.

3. Give the following a suitable word/phrase.

(a) The sub-atomic particle with negative charge and negligible mass.
(b) Protons and neutrons present in the nucleus.
(c) The electrons present in the outermost shell.
(d) Arrangement of electrons in the shells of an atom.
(e) The number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom.
(f) The sum of the number of protons and neutrons of an atom.
(g) Atoms of same element with same atomic number but a different mass number.
(h) The smallest unit of an element which takes part in a chemical reaction.

Answer:

(a) Neutron
(b) Mass number
(c) Valency
(d) Orbits or Valence shells
(e) Atomic number
(f) Mass number
(g) Isotopes
(h) Atom

4. Multiple Choice Questions

(a) The outermost shell of an atom is known as

  1. valency
  2. valence electrons
  3. nucleus
  4. valence shell

(b) The number of valence electrons present in magnesium is

  1. two
  2. three
  3. four
  4. five

(c) The sub atomic particle with negative charge is

  1. proton
  2. neutron
  3. electron
  4. nucleon

(d) If the atomic number of an atom is 17 and mass number is 35 then number of neutron will be

  1. 35
  2. 17
  3. 18
  4. 52

(e) The number of electrons in an atom is equal to number of

  1. protons in a neutral atom
  2. neutrons in a neutral atom
  3. nucleons in a neutral atom
  4. none of the above

(f) The sum of number of protons and number of neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom is called its

  1. mass number
  2. atomic number
  3. number of electrons
  4. all of the above

Question 5.
Name three fundamental particles of the atom. Give the symbol with charge, on each particle.
Answer:
The fundamental particles of the atom are: electrons, protons and neutrons.

ParticleSymbolCharge
electrone-1 or 1.602 x 10-19 C. Where -1 represent its one unit negative electrical charge
protonp++ 1 or 1.602 x 10-19 C. Where +1 represents one unit +ve electrical charge.
neutronno0

Question 6.
Define the following terms:
(a) Atomic number
(b) Mass number
(c) Nucleons
(d) Valence shell
Answer:
(a) Atomic number: Atomic number refers to the number of protons present in an atom. It is denoted by Z. Example: An atom of oxygen contains 8 proton Therefore its atomic number is 8.
(b) Mass number: Mass number refers to the sum of the number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom and denoted by A Mass number = Number of protons + Number of neutrons.
(c) Nucleons: The protons and neutrons collectively are known as nucleons.
(d) Valence Shell: The outermost shell of an atom is known as its valence shell.

Question 7.
Mention briefly the salient features of Dalton’s atomic theory (five points).
Answer:
Salient features of Dalton’s atomic theory:

  1. Matter consists of very small and indivisible particles called atoms, which can neither be created nor can be destroyed.
  2. The atoms of an element are alike in all respects i.e. size, mass, density, chemical properties but they differ from the atoms of other elements.
  3. Atoms of an element combine in small numbers to form molecules of the element.
  4. Atoms of one element combine with atoms of another element in simple whole number ratio to form molecules of compounds.
  5. Atoms are the smallest units of matter that can take part in a chemical reaction during which only rearrangement of atoms takes place.

Question 8.
(a) What are the two main features of Rutherford’s atomic model?
(b) State its one drawback.
Answer:
(a) According to Rutherford’s model an atom consists of:

  1. The centrally located nucleus: The nucleus is a centrally located positively charged mass. The entire mass of the atom is concentrated in it. It is the densest part of the atom. Its size is very small as compare to the atom as a whole.
  2. The outer circular orbits: Electrons revolve in circular orbits (shell) in the space available around the nucleus. An atom is electrically neutral i.e., number of protons and electrons present in an atom are equal.

(b) Rutherford’s atomic model could not explain the stability of the atom as it is like a solar system, the sun is at the centre and the planets revolve around it, in an atom the electrons revolve around the centrally located nucleus containing protons.

Question 9.
What are the observations of the experiment done by Rutherford in order to determine the structure of an atom?
Answer:
Following were the observations made by Rutherford:

  1. Most of the alpha particle passed straight through the foil without any deflection from their path.
  2. A small fraction of them were deflected from their original path by small angles.
  3. Only a few particles bounced back.

Question 10.
State the mass number, the atomic number, number of neutrons and electronic configuration of the following atoms.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-atomic-structure-1
Also, draw atomic diagrams for them.
Answer:
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-atomic-structure-2
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-atomic-structure-3

Question 11.
What is variable valency? Name two elements having variable valency and state their valencies.
Answer:
Variable valency: Some elements exhibit more than one valency. They are said to have variable valency, e.g. Iron, copper, tin, lead.
Iron         Fe       Fe2+ or Fe3+
Copper   cu        cu+ or cu2+

Question 12.
The atomic number and the mass number of sodium are 11 and 23 respectively. What information is conveyed by this statement.
Answer:
Atomic number = 11; No of protons = 11
Mass number = 23 = Number of protons + Number of neutrons.
No of neutrons = 23-11 = 12.

Question 13.
Draw the diagrams representing the atomic structures of the following:
(a) Nitrogen (b) Neon
Answer:
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-atomic-structure-4

Question 14.
Explain the rule with example according to which electrons are filled in various energy levels,
Answer:
The maximum number of electrons that can be present in any shell or orbit of an atom is given by the formula 2n2, where n is the serial number of the shell.
Therefore:
K shell, n = 1, no. of electrons = 2 x 12 = 2
L shell, n = 2, no. of electrons = 2 x 22 = 8
M shell, n = 3, no. of electrons = 2 x 32 = 18
N shell, n = 4, no. of electrons = 2 x 42= 32
Electrons are not accommodated in a given shell, unless the inner shells are filled.
That is, the shells are filled in a stepwise manner.
Example:
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-atomic-structure-5

Question 15.
The atom of an element is made up of 4 protons, 5 neutrons and 4 electrons. What is its atomic number and mass number?
Answer:
Protons = 4, neutrons = 5, electrons = 4
Atomic number = 4,
Mass number = 4 + 5 = 9

Question 16.
(a) What are the two main parts of which an atom is made of?
(b) Where is the nucleus of an atom situated ?
(c) What are orbits or shells of an atom ?
Answer:
(a)

  1. The centrally located nucleus
  2. The outer circular orbits.

(b) The nucleus is a centrally located positively charged mass.
(c) The circular orbits (shell present) in the space available around the nucleus on which electrons revolve are called orbits or shells of an atom.

Question 17.
What are isotopes? How does the existence of isotopes contradict Dalton’s atomic theory?
Answer:
Atoms of an element must have the same atomic number, but their mass number can be different due to the presence of different number of neutrons. These atoms of an element having different number of neutrons are called groups.
According to Dalton’s theory, all atoms of an element are similar to all respects, for example, they have the same shape, size etc. and have similar physical and chemical properties like mass, density and reactivity. Whereas isotopes of an element have atoms that are similar as they have same number of protons and electrons but differ in the number of neutrons. So, the isotopes have atoms that are not similar in all aspects.

Question 18.
Complete the table below by identifying A, B, C, D, E andF.
Answer:
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-atomic-structure-6